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Theseus's avatar

Should The Hobbit have occured in 2940 T.A in order to align the moon phases with LOTR?

Asked by Theseus (49points) January 20th, 2011

Using astronomy software I realized it was impossible for the events in The Hobbit to have happened in 2941 T.A. and still have the phases of the moon be in alignment with that of LOTR. However, it fits perfectly if you move it back one year. Was there a missing year?
I found one year from about 6,000 years ago(as Tolkien implied in one of his quotes) that squares the seasons, venus and moon phases for 3019 T.A. I just couldn’t get The Hobbit to fit.

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4 Answers

coffeenut's avatar

Well…..In the Lord of The Rings universe it could be correct….

coffeenut (6174points)“Great Answer” (0points) Flag as…
Lightlyseared's avatar

It happened when it happened and couldn’t ‘ve happened at any other time.

Lightlyseared (34907points)“Great Answer” (0points) Flag as…
troubleinharlem's avatar

Were you really bored today?

No, but I don’t think that Tolkien actually thought someone would go and do this. If he was alive you could ask him, but he’s not, so… there probably was some sort of mistake made. But no problem, right? It’s still a neat book.

troubleinharlem (7999points)“Great Answer” (1points) Flag as…
Theseus's avatar

I’ve figured it out. Midyear’s Day in 3019 is July 22, 4008 B.C.(Julian proleptic). You saw it here first.

Theseus (49points)“Great Answer” (1points) Flag as…

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