Social Question

Demosthenes's avatar

If you don't put the word "some" before a noun referring to people, does that imply you mean "every single one" of those people?

Asked by Demosthenes (15328points) June 30th, 2018

If, for example, you say something like “moms love SUVs”, is that statement controversial because the implied meaning is that every single mother in the universe loves SUVs? Does the statement require a “some” before the word “moms” or is the meaning easily understandable?

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17 Answers

SavoirFaire's avatar

No.

Generalizations can be restricted or unrestricted. The words “all” or “some” can be used to make it explicit which type of generalization you are making, but a reasonable person uses context and the principle of charity to determine which sort of generalization is intended when neither word is present.

Demosthenes's avatar

@SavoirFaire Thanks. Principle of charity is something I hadn’t considered. There does need to be come critical thinking employed in the absence of words like “some” or “all”.

kritiper's avatar

No. If I mean “all people” I’ll say “all people.” Just “people” is a general term.

zenvelo's avatar

The absent “some” is what leads to misunderstanding.

A salesman tells a man “moms love SUVs” and buys an Escalade for his wife to haul the kids around, when what she really wants is a Miata so she can leave the kids home with dad.

Dutchess_III's avatar

On Fluther it does.

SQUEEKY2's avatar

TOTALLY AGREE WITH @Dutchess_III !!!!^^^^^^

canidmajor's avatar

Usually, in the context of fluther, just the use of the designator, without “some” precedes a rant. “Why do men do (something rude)?” or “Why do women do (something stupid or silly)” or “Why do smokers do (something nasty and unacceptable)?”
In that case, the OP tends to be referring to the vast vast majority of same.

SQUEEKY2's avatar

Not Necessarily @canidmajor ,but I do get your point.
It is easier to understand and not get offended outright if the person adds “most” or “some”.
Then we figure they can’t possibly be talking about or referring to “me”.

PIN_24's avatar

It does or does not mean “all”. It is an open ended statement. So, to avoid the confusion and as a preemptive measure, try to use “some” or “most” to convey your message with more clarity. Otherwise, there will be a backlash from (some) grammar nazis.

SQUEEKY2's avatar

I love that answer^^^^^^.

janbb's avatar

It’s not a question of grammar but of meaning. “Some” means some: “people” is a generalization implying all.

rebbel's avatar

I’m with some penguin.

I also think that leaving out “some” or “all” in some instances (see what I did there?) is done purposely, for example on Youtube, to get clickbait titles (”Teenagers Have Sex At Twelve Years Old”.)

kritiper's avatar

I should have clarified that, to me, “people” means people in general.

SavoirFaire's avatar

“Dogs have four legs” is true even though some dogs have lost a leg.

“Textbooks are expensive” is true even though some textbooks are dirt cheap.

“Cats make Jessica Alba sneeze” is true even though some cats are hypoallergenic.

“Americans eat a lot of cheese” is true even though some Americans are vegan (or lactose intolerant).

It is worth noting that the difference between restricted and unrestricted generalizations plays a fundamental role in language learning, meaning that everyone here intuitively understood the difference by age three even if they are professing to have trouble with it now.

MollyMcGuire's avatar

Yep. Don’t generalize like that.

jonsblond's avatar

Great question.

You can add the word some to your question and there will still be some who think you mean everybody. You can’t win here.

Dutchess_III's avatar

You really can’t. Especially when you have members who exist solely to pick apart people’s comments and insult them.

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