General Question

Yellowdog's avatar

In the Bible, what year is the slaughter of the innocents at Bethlehem purported to have taken place?

Asked by Yellowdog (12216points) January 2nd, 2019

I have it on good authority that Herod died in March of 4 b.c.e. (that is, March of 4 B.C..) and several possible years for Jesus’ birth
(I personally believe that it was during the Feast of Tabernacles in 5 b.c.e. but could be wrong).

My question is, when did the Magi arrive and Herod order the slaughter of the babies under two years old in Bethlehem?

I am not asking IF it happened— I am asking when it is said or believed to have occurred, given the fairly certain date of March in 4 b.c.e. for Herod’s death. and Jesus’ birth a year or two thereabout before

Observing members: 0 Composing members: 0

7 Answers

seawulf575's avatar

I think you pretty well pegged it. I don’t think the date is ever mentioned in the Bible. But Joseph packed up the family and lit out for Egypt and returned a few year later, after Herod was dead.

Response moderated
Response moderated
Response moderated
Strauss's avatar

According to this Wikipedia article, Coptic Christian sources place the event on Dec. 29, four days after the birth of Jesus.

seawulf575's avatar

And this one:

http://www.biblearchaeology.org/post/2009/12/08/The-Slaughter-of-the-innocents-Historical-Fact-or-Legendary-Fiction.aspx

Clement of Alexandria puts Jesus being born on May 14, 6 BC. It also states the wise men probably weren’t there for the birth, but rather almost a year and a half later.

Response moderated (Writing Standards)

Answer this question

Login

or

Join

to answer.

This question is in the General Section. Responses must be helpful and on-topic.

Your answer will be saved while you login or join.

Have a question? Ask Fluther!

What do you know more about?
or
Knowledge Networking @ Fluther