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RedDeerGuy1's avatar

Is one considered Illiterate if they can only read and write in a foreign language?

Asked by RedDeerGuy1 (24945points) December 14th, 2019

That isn’t recognized by the new country?

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21 Answers

rebbel's avatar

No.
To be illiterate means one can’t write or read period.

RedDeerGuy1's avatar

@all Well then we have it. It Is a no. Just wondering. Thanks all.

Yellowdog's avatar

Everyone reads and writes in a language that’s foreign to SOMEone—where they don’t speak our vernacular.

RedDeerGuy1's avatar

@Yellowdog In high school I used to know fluent Klingon and I asked the university that I was eyeing on if It counts as a second language, and they said no. Now I only know a few words in Klingon, and a couple of words in real languages like Latin and Greek science terms.

Yellowdog's avatar

In my opinion. fictional languages from Star Wars, Star Trek, and Tolkien DO have some merit, as they take discipline to learn, and are constructed with culture and psychology in mind.

The problem, I suppose, is most are not well established enough to have set standards. People may learn these languages differently from a standard norm.

Maybe they should count as ¾ or 5/8 languages/

Darth_Algar's avatar

Well Tolkien’s languages are better developed than most fictitious languages. They ought to be, considering his profession.

The “languages” in Star Wars are basically just random syllables slapped together.

Dutchess_lll's avatar

Well. I was a shitty Christian when I kind of called people out for speaking in tongues. But not to the whole church. Just to my best friend later. And now I’m going to hell.

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Darth_Algar's avatar

@Dutchess_lll

I’m truly astounded (though I probably shouldn’t be) by how many people really eat that shit up. As a kid I marvelled at how the adults in the church couldn’t see through such an obvious put-on.

rebbel's avatar

Could?
Or couldn’t?

Darth_Algar's avatar

Couldn’t. Typo edited.

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