General Question

Soubresaut's avatar

To what extent do means justify ends?

Asked by Soubresaut (13714points) May 31st, 2020

(Please read the phrasing carefully; yes, I meant to say it that way.)

To say “the ends [don’t] justify the means” suggests that there are some outcomes that might be desirable, yet have undesirable methods for being achieved.

Will desirable methods, “good” processes, acceptable means reliably lead to good outcomes? How can you be sure?

If they do not always lead to good outcomes, when do you begin to reassess the methods? And how do you begin to reassess them?

Can the means matter more than the ends?

I know the question is a bit abstract. If possible, it would probably be helpful to offer an example with your answer so the discussion can be a bit more concrete.

Observing members: 0 Composing members: 0

7 Answers

RedDeerGuy1's avatar

~Depends if one gets caught.

The phrase “the road to hell is paved with good intentions.” Comes to mind, but I don’t know why.

Yes it is time to update that saying. The ends don’t justify the means, and the means don’t justify the ends. Nothing justifies anything else.

kritiper's avatar

To whatever extent is required. It’s a given.

LostInParadise's avatar

How can you have means without intended ends? Could you give an example?

The best reasoning in this regard I found from the philosopher Sartre. He asked how you distinguish means from ends. It all comes in the same package. The problem with saying that ends justify means is that unpleasant means have a way of corrupting ends.

elbanditoroso's avatar

No single answer. Situational to the extreme.

Soubresaut's avatar

Thanks for the clarifying questions, @LostInParadise. I’m thinking this question probably wasn’t as well thought out as I thought it was. Maybe there isn’t much “meat” to this question. But some examples that were in my head when asking it:

- I’ve seen arguments that some politicians favor following the correct “process” even to the detriment of immediate values or immediate outcomes—that when other political actors stop “playing by the rules,” they stick with the old process instead of trying to rethink their approach, because (so the argument goes) they are operating under the assumption that abiding by the right process makes them right in their actions regardless the outcome. (I’m just trying to repeat the argument here for an example, not give an opinion of it).

- People protesting the wearing of masks because it’s a “means” that infringes on their freedoms, regardless the outcome of people not wearing masks.

- I was in a position where I was supposed to follow the rules and practices of an education program because that’s how the program “worked,” despite those rules and practices not seeming to bring about the stated end goal (student learning and achievement).

I realize I’m oversimplifying those situations to explain them concisely, but hopefully that makes sense?

To some extent, I was also thinking political ”-isms” may be an example of this as well—when someone has an ”-ism” they agree with, in a way they have subscribed to the idea that certain means are the “good” ones or the “preferred” ones—and often compare the “means” of different proposals against those promoted by the ”-ism” as a measure of their worth, or as a shortcut to assess the proposals’ worth.

Response moderated (Spam)
Response moderated

Answer this question

Login

or

Join

to answer.

This question is in the General Section. Responses must be helpful and on-topic.

Your answer will be saved while you login or join.

Have a question? Ask Fluther!

What do you know more about?
or
Knowledge Networking @ Fluther