Let’s begin with the most obvious and easily dis-provable statement you made first before we move on. I want to quote you again.
“In the last couple of centuries rape is seen as a right rather than a crime in war for the victor”
This conclusively demonstrates either your complete lack of understanding of warfare prior to 200 years ago or a willingness to ignore it.
Here is a more accurate statement – It is only in the last 100 years, and this has only been somewhat effectively enforced in the last 50 – that there were any suggestions whatsoever, that rape was not a right of conquering warrior and this was true of any culture on the planet.
For you to suggest that the rape of conquered women was considered a crime prior to 200 years ago is so insane, I don’t know where to begin. Ever read the old testament? With the exception of a few Christian/Dark-age era laws that may have discouraged soldiers from raping the vanquished, can you name me a single, solitary example of an ancient culture that considered rape in warfare a crime?
What this demonstrates is a rather clear…....let me think of the best way to describe this…....let’s call it a “Boasian” bias that seems to imagine that things were wonderful and peaceful before white people and capitalism began corrupting the purity of human life.
Rape of the vanquished was UNIVERSALLY seen as a soldiers rightful booty, prior to very recent times. The idea that this used to represent a crime shows a complete lack of understanding of pre-modern history.
Another error, As agriculture is 8,000 years old, our Paleolithic ancestors do not make up 3/4ths of the human time line, they make up 98% of it. What you still have not even vaguely demonstrated is that rape did not happen in this period.
Prior to 500 A.D,. and often thereafter in Asian and South American societies, women were property. There was no concept of rape, as you say, but if we were to retroactively apply todays standard – a woman being forced into sexual intercourse involuntarily – rape was something a woman could expect to have visited upon her often.
The second most implausible argument you posit is that in the classical era, women and men were segregated and hence there was no rape. This is bizarre. Again, I would point to slavery and the universally acknowledged right of a master to the sexual availability of his slave…...as one example. Women who worked in bars in Rome for instance, were also prostitutes and were expected to be available for sex for pay. Were someone to rape such a girl, I can assure you that no trial would ensue…....as simply one example.
I feel like I’ve been given a wet bowl of spaghetti and I have to unwind it with one chopstick. I’ll just start with that.
Which part of this is asking a question?