@felipelavinz: in my opinion, and that of some studies I have seen, the link you gave gives short shrift to the impact of water vapor as a greenhouse gas, by suggesting the water vapor increase is, in effect, a side effect of the increased presence of other greenhouse gases. This statement in the link does not include the increased presence of water vapor that IS attributable directly to human conduct. Widespread irrigation, the damming of waterways to create lakes for recreation, water supplies and hydroelectric power, maintenance of water reservoirs for human water consumption, swimming pools, lawn watering, and replacing original environments with lawns and gardens requiring far greater water use than the original environment have increased the presence of water vapor in the atmosphere. Just think of all of the water vapor resulting from widespread lawns, gardens and agricultural fields replacing natural, arid environments in the western U.S.
One of the assumptions made regarding global warming that strikes me as logically weak is the assumption, frequently implied rather than express, that global warming (I’m not going to discuss now, for purposes of brevity, the questions of whether global warming exists and is a problem), without prompt human intervention, is an irreversible trend.
I don’t have any science to support the following, it is merely my own application of logic to some known facts, and there may be some big holes in this I don’t see at the moment. Thus, this is merely my own musing.
Certainly we all can agree that as a matter of the geologic record, the earth has been in ice ages, some of them very severe. I don’t think it is unreasonable to infer that as the glaciers that covered most of North America, Europe and Asia thawed and retreated, massive amounts of water would have been dumped into waterways, eventually causing ocean levels to rise. At the same time, there must have been a huge increase in the presence of water vapor, a significant greenhouse gas, from the larger volumes of water exposed to evaporation. Further, large amounts of methane and other greenhouse gases would have been released as permafrost and rotting vegetation under the ice was exposed. I do not know, but suspect as a logical inference, that the contributions to greenhouse gases from such an immense global thaw must surpass the current levels of human-caused greenhouse gases.
Logically, then, you would think the worldwide increase in greenhouse gases, when combined with global temperatures already increasing from other causes, would have created a synergistic effect, and global warming (which certainly was a good thing, coming out of a great Ice Age) would have continued to spiral upward uncontrollably.
Yet we know this didn’t happen, and the global warming eventually ceased, and although it changed the prior environmental conditions (for the better, if you’re huddled in a cave gnawing frozen mastodon) the global warming did not, as far as we know, permanently damage the global environment. Without any human intervention.
If the sort of irreversible upward warming trend, assumed by those asserting a global warming crisis, did exist, why has it not occurred before, if my logic above is correct? Is there some correcting mechanism we might not be discussing, or that has not been identified? Is all of this inherently cyclical, and what goes up will come down?
I suppose an argument could be made that the portion of greenhouse gases caused by humans, in addition to the natural causes, would be the proverbial camel’s straw. Is there some sort of documentation comparing human-caused factors to prior worldwide ice age thaw? I have seen a number of accounts that the eruption of Krakatoa did more damage to the global environment than our current pollution, if that is true, why didn’t we have irreversible warming (absent intentional human intervention) at that time?