I only understand two definitions, one referring to the attraction or decision of a lifelong partner, and the other referring to the sexual attraction. And I definitely consider these distinct.
I do not use the ’—sexual’ terms because I stick to the concepts of sex and reproduction at its core. So first I would have to define sex, and that is the act of procreation, fornication, male and female.
Homosexual is a biological term for me, not a ‘persuasion’ or anything of the like. And last I checked, no two humans of the same gender were capable of producing a child from conception to birth. So I do not use the nomenclature.
As a species, we are heterosexuals. Use of the term to refer to my sexual pleasure satisfaction preferences I think causes many of the problems, likewise homosexual, and bisexual. The terms establish groups of people, categories, classifications, but are used very subjectively (as to who is in which group by what standards), hence this thread’s question. And I would point to this very thread as an example of how people can’t come to a universal consensus on the borders of the groups… If you can’t indicate clearly in which classification one belongs, then I have to wonder if the classifications are even substantiated.
The primary reason I don’t use these terms is actually because they had viable definitions before they were used for these groups. Adding fuzzy definitions to words I find very unappealing, but creating neologisms I’m all for.
So the first definition provides me the answer, no. People are not bisexual, and cannot produce children with either gender of sexual partner.
However, I can also understand that you might be asking if I think there are people that are sexually attracted to both genders (still going on the physical pleasure perspective mind you). In which case my answer would be the guess… yes. Though I would consider it pertinent to explain what I mean by ‘sexual’ here.
During sex, most people experience varying degrees of physical and psychological pleasure, and those acts that are in pursuit of said pleasure, I can understand as ‘sexual’ as opposed to companionship (that other long term significant other concept).
People are sexually aroused and pursue satisfaction with all manner of things, and many would fall into multiple classifications if based thereon.
Several facts I have considered:
Masturbation is stimulation (often of the genitals) in pursuit of usually sexual pleasures, and is not exclusive of multiple people (i.e. masturbation is a verb, and an act that can be performed on another).
Almost every human being that engages in sexual activity masturbates them self and their partner at some time or another throughout the engagement, regardless of their sexual preferences.
Celibacy is one who abstains from sexual intercourse, not masturbation.
Every human being is celibate during portions of their life.
There is no such thing as oral sex; no one can get another pregnant via intercourse with the mouth, at least not to my knowledge. There is fellatio and cunnilingus, both forms of masturbation.
So in consideration of this, I cannot consider gay couples, homosexuals (whatever the label is over that classification) to engage in sex at all, though they regularly engage in celibate masturbation, and according to statistics, they do so much more often than couples have sex.
I stick to the sexual arousal definitions most often since I have rarely encountered those who use homo-, hetero-, or bisexual without intending to include sexual pleasure preferences.
The application of the term(s) only referring to the gender which one prefers for long term companionship in life (regardless of sexual preferences), I consider a separate notion only because I have yet to hear any even remotely clear explanation that incorporates both pleasure preference and companionship preference. Though many I witness use the terms in such ways.
If it is this notion referred to by ‘bisexual’, then I would guess yes, many people find the companionship of either gender equally rewarding.
I don’t think people distinguish between what desires they are speaking about for being too wrapped up in right, wrong, good, bad, etc. People judge others, a lot, about everything. I state here an observation only (as I don’t judge people for judging). But where someone draws the line of ‘acceptable’ is by its very nature subjective.
“Homosexuality is fine and people need to be more open minded, but pedophilia and bestiality are out and out wrong!” Oh how we love to draw our lines based on our subjective judgements.
It’s not the fact that some people are turned on by children that I have a problem with, it’s the forcing of one’s will on a child to perform such acts that moves me to agree with stringent laws and punishment for such. But if I were to judge pedophilia as wrong or bad based on its deviation from some norm or what we know to be the act of sex (intercourse here), I would likewise have to do the same for any behavior that deviated.
I should likely stop. I hope I at least provided food for thought.
My answers are yes and no, depending on which facet(s) of the relationship we are considering within the question.
Sorry for the book…